If rape, as such, has to be a ground for legal abortion, then does that mean that there has to have been a prior conviction for that very specific offence before the abortion can be carried out?
If not, then are we supposed to accept, and to enact into law, the principle that any heterosexual act is rape, either by definition, or at the very least if the woman happens to say that it was?
It has to be one or the other. Which is it, and why?
No comments:
Post a Comment